NEET 2025 Biology Questions

Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic flower? (NEET 2025)

Which of the following is an example of actinomorphic flower? (NEET 2024)

In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-rich layer called : (NEET 2025)

Given below are two statements: Statement I : In a floral formula the symbol [percentage/division-type symbol] stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and G with a bar above it stands for inferior ovary. Statement II : In a floral formula the symbol [same symbol] stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower and G with a bar below it stands for superior ovary. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: (NEET 2025)

Match List I with List II: List I — A. Scutellum; B. Non-albuminous seed; C. Epiblast; D. Perisperm. List II — I. Persistent nucellus; II. Cotyledon of Monocot seed; III. Groundnut; IV. Rudimentary cotyledon. Choose the option with all correct matches. (NEET 2025)

Why can't insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?

Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones: A. It causes pupillary constriction B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone C. It causes piloerection D. It increases strength of heart contraction Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus?

Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. Heart B. Kidney C. Gastro-intestinal tract D. Adrenal Cortex List-II: I. Erythropoietin II. Aldosterone III. Atrial natriuretic factor IV. Secretin Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. Progesterone B. Relaxin C. Melanocyte stimulating hormone D. Catecholamines List-II: I. Pars intermedia II. Ovary III. Adrenal Medulla IV. Corpus luteum Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence. A. Prothallus stage B. Meiosis in spore mother cells C. Fertilisation D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte. E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg. B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum. C. Reduction division, to produce haploid spores. D. Formation of sporophyte. E. Release of antherozoids into water. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?

In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following?

Match List I with List II. List I (Plant group) A. Pteridophyte B. Bryophyte C. Angiosperm D. Gymnosperm List II (Example) I. Salvia II. Ginkgo III. Polytrichum IV. Salvinia Choose the option with all correct matches.

While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher did the histology of adult animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no mesodermal tissue was observed towards the alimentary canal. What could be the possible coelom of that animal?

Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is: A. Respiration and Locomotion B. Excretion and Locomotion C. Capture and transport of food D. Digestion and Respiration E. Digestion and Excretion Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

All living members of the class Cyclostomata are:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrate. Reason (R): The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord during the embryonic period, the notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is :

From the statements given below choose the correct option: A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S. B. Each ribosome has two sub-units. C. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 40S while that of 70S are 50S and 30S. D. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 20S and that of 70S are 50S and 20S. E. The two sub-units of 80S are 60S and 30S and that of 70S are 50S and 30S.

Match List-I with List-II: List I A. Centromere B. Cilium C. Cristae D. Cell membrane List II I. Mitochondrion II. Cell division III. Cell movement IV. Phospholipid Bilayer Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell. Reason (R): Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad?

In frog, the Renal system is a special venous connection that acts to link:

What is the name of the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog?

Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs. Choose the correct answer from the following:

The protein portion of an enzyme is called:

Which one of the following enzymes contains ‘Haem’ as the prosthetic group?

Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. Adenosine; B. Adenylic acid; C. Adenine; D. Alanine List-II: I. Nitrogen base; II. Nucleotide; III. Nucleoside; IV. Amino acid Choose the option with all correct matches.

Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyze the following reaction: S−G + S# → S + S#−G Where, G → a group other than hydrogen; S → a substrate; S# → another substrate

Match List I (Pigment) with List II (Colour) and choose the correct answer: List I A. Chlorophyll a B. Chlorophyll b C. Xanthophylls D. Carotenoids List II I. Yellow-green II. Yellow III. Blue-green IV. Yellow to Yellow-orange Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?

Which of the following diagrams is correct with regard to the proximal (P) and distal (D) tubule of the Nephron.

Match List - I with List - II List-I A. Emphysema B. Angina Pectoris C. Glomerulo-nephritis D. Tetany List-II I. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca++ in body fluid II. Damaged alveolar walls and decreased respiratory surface III. Acute chest pain when not enough oxygen is reaching to heart muscle IV. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Read the following statements on plant growth and development. A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins. B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth. C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-differentiation. D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter. E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds. Choose the option with all correct statements.

Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence in plants?

Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by : A. Nodal tissue B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata C. Adrenal medullary hormones D. Adrenal cortical hormones Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

What is the name of the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog ?

Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of monocot stem.

The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as

Each of the following characteristics represent a Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the following in increasing order of complexity of body organization. A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin. B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization. C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids. D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization. E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

What is the main function of the spindle fiber during mitosis?

Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell? A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing B. Removing of introns and joining of exons C. Addition of methyl group at 5′ end of hnRNA. D. Addition of adenine residues at 3′ end of hnRNA. E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides?

Which factor is important for termination of transcription?

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA do not interact with mRNA. Statement II: RNA interference (RNAi) takes places in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Histones are enriched with -

Given below are two statements: Statement I: In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic material evolved to carry out essential life processes, RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable. Statement II: DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic material. Its double helical strands being complementary, resist changes by evolving repairing mechanism. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?

Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of -

Match List-I with List-II. List-I: A. Alfred Hershey and Martha B. Euchromatin C. Frederick Griffith D. Heterochromatin List-II: I. Streptococcus pneumoniae II. Densely packed and dark-stained III. Loosely packed and light-stained IV. DNA as genetic material confirmation Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

From the statements given below choose the correct option: A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S. B. Each ribosome has two sub-units. C. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 40S while that of 70S are 50S and 30S. D. The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 20S and that of 70S are 50S and 20S. E. The two sub-units of 80S are 60S and 30S and that of 70S are 50S and 30S.

Given below are two statements: Assertion (A): Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus. Reason (R): Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increases the efficiency of nourishing the developing microspore mother cells. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer: (NEET 2025)

Given below are two statements: Assertion (A): A typical unfertilized, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled. Reason (R): The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer: (NEET 2025)

Given below are two statements: Assertion (A): Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar. Reason (R): The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains in wind and water pollinated flowers. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer: (NEET 2025)

Match List I with List II: List I A. Scutellum B. Non-albuminous seed C. Epiblast D. Perisperm List II I. Persistent nucellus II. Cotyledon of Monocot seed III. Groundnut IV. Rudimentary cotyledon Choose the option with all correct matches: (NEET 2025)

In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-rich layer called : (NEET 2025)

How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant? (NEET 2025)

Which are correct: A. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging detect cancers of internal organs. B. Chemotherapeutics drugs are used to kill non-cancerous cells. C. α-interferon activate the cancer patients’ immune system and helps in destroying the tumour. D. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological response modifiers. E. In the case of leukemia blood cell counts are decreases. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to secondary lymphoid organ(s)/tissue(s) like: A. thymus B. bone marrow C. spleen D. lymph nodes E. Peyer’s patches Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of defence in the human body?

Identify the statement that is NOT correct.

Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to: A. A mass of proliferating cell B. Rapid growth of cells C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue D. Those confined to original location Choose the correct answer from the options given below

In the above represented plasmid an alien piece of DNA is inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the following strategies will be chosen to select the recombinant colonies?

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation

Given below are two statements : Statement I : The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of recombinant DNA. Statement II : Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are found near the wells in an agarose gel. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning? A. Restriction enzymes B. DNA ligase C. DNA mutase D. DNA recombinase E. DNA polymerase Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate. Given below are two statements about this method: Statement I : The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as recombinant colonies. Statement II : The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

Match List-I and List-II. List-I (A. Head; B. Middle piece; C. Acrosome; D. Tail) List-II (I. Enzymes; II. Sperm motility; III. Energy; IV. Genetic material) Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (NEET 2025)

The first menstruation is called:

Consider the following: A. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the male gametogenesis. B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for males compared to females. C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte. D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of menstrual bleeding. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (NEET 2025)

Find the correct statements: A. In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 12 weeks. B. In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks. C. In human pregnancy heart is formed after one month of gestation. D. In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of second month. E. In human pregnancy the appearance of hair is usually observed in the fifth month. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (NEET 2025)

Given below are two statements: Statement I: In an ecosystem, there is a unidirectional flow of energy from the sun through producers to consumers. Statement II: Ecosystems are exempted from the 2nd law of thermodynamics. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy. Statement II: The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP). In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an Ecosystem?

Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it. Statement II: Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit a mutual relationship, as the fig fruit provides the wasp a place to lay eggs and the fig gets pollinated by the fig wasp. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: (NEET 2025)

Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population? (NEET 2025)

Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products? A. Aspergillus niger B. Lactobacillus C. Trichoderma polysporum D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae E. Propionibacterium sharmanii Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for

Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen? A. Azotobacter B. Oscillatoria C. Anabaena D. Volvox E. Nostoc Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?

Match List I with List II : List I A. The Evil Quartet B. Ex situ conservation C. Lantana camara D. Dodo List II I. Cryopreservation II. Alien species invasion III. Causes of biodiversity losses IV. Extinction Choose the option will all correct matches. (NEET 2025)

Genes R and Y follow independent assortment. If RRYY produce round yellow seeds and rryy produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?

What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?

What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the IVF method? A. High fatality risk to mother B. Expensive instruments and reagents C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors D. Less adoption of orphans E. Not available in India F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (NEET 2025)

Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin? (NEET 2025)

Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the evolution.