Year-wise Weightage (2015–2026)

2026 vs 2025: +4 more questions vs 2025

YearQuestions AskedMarks
2026936
2025520
202428
2023832
2022520
Show all years (2015–2021)
2021624
2020624
2019936
201828
2017312
2016728
2015
Q1
NEET 2016 Phase 1

The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from:

Q2
NEET 2016 Phase 2

Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for

Q3
NEET 2016 Phase 2

Which of the following restriction enzymes produces blunt ends?

Q4
NEET 2016 Phase 2

Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing?

Q5
NEET 2016 Phase 1

Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids?

Q6
NEET 2016 Phase 2

A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using

Q7
NEET 2016 Phase 1

Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?

Q8
NEET 2017

A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as

Q9
NEET 2017

The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called

Q10
NEET 2017

What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis?

Q11
NEET 2018

Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?

Q12
NEET 2018

The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is

Q13
NEET 2019 Odisha

Given below are four statements pertaining to separation of DNA fragments using gel electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect statements. (a) DNA is negatively charged molecule and so it is loaded on gel towards the Anode terminal (b) DNA fragments travel along the surface of the gel whose concentration does not affect movement of DNA. (c) Smaller the size of DNA fragment larger is the distance it travels through it. (d) Pure DNA can be visualized directly by exposing UV radiation. Choose correct answer from the options given below

Q14
NEET 2019

Which one of the following equipments is essentially required for growing microbes on a large scale, for industrial production of enzymes?

Q15
NEET 2019 Odisha

Match the following enzymes with their functions : (a) Restriction endonuclease (i) Joins the DNA fragements (b) Restriction exonuclease (ii) Extends primers on genomic DNA template (c) DNA ligase (iii) Cuts DNA at specific position (d) Taq polymerase (iv) Removes nucleotides from the ends of DNA Select the correct option from the following

Q16
NEET 2019

Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme Restriction Endonuclease. Identify the incorrect statement.

Q17
NEET 2019 Odisha

An enzyme catalysing the removel of nucleotides from ends of DNA is:

Q18
NEET 2019

DNA precipitation out of a mixture of biomolecules can be achieved by treatment with

Q19
NEET 2019 Odisha

The two antibiotic resistance genes on vector pBR322 are for

Q20
NEET 2019 · NEET 2019 Odisha · NEET 2021 · ReNEET 2026

Which or the following statements is incorrect?

Q21
NEET 2019 Odisha

A selectable marker is used to:

Q22
NEET 2020

In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of

Q23
NEET 2020

Identify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes.

Q24
NEET 2020

Choose the correct pair from the following:

Q25
NEET 2020

The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is

Q26
NEET 2020

Match the organism with its use in biotechnology (a) Bacillus (b) Thermus aquaticus (c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (d) Salmonella typhimurium (i) Cloning vector (ii) Construction of first rDNA (iii) DNA polymerase (iv) Cry proteins Select the correct option from the following:

Q27
NEET 2020

The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector is termed

Q28
NEET 2021

Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?

Q29
NEET 2021

Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)

Q30
NEET 2021

Plasmid pBR322 has PsI restriction enzyme site within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for β-galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in a E.coli strain

Q31
NEET 2021

A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is:

Q32
NEET 2021 · NEET 2023 Phase 1

During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out

Q33
NEET 2022

Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector ?

Q34
NEET 2022

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequences to cut DNA known as palindromic nucleotide sequences. Statement II: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic site. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Q35
NEET 2022

Which one of the following statements is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique?

Q36
NEET 2022

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification. Reason (R): The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q37
NEET 2022

In the following palindromic base sequence of DNA, which one can be cut easily by a particular restriction enzyme?

Q38
NEET 2023 Phase 2

Match List-I with List-II. List-I List-II (A) Kanamycin (I) Delivers genes into animal cells (B) ClaI (II) Selectable marker (C) Disarmed retroviruses (III) Restriction site (D) Kanamycin R gene (IV) Antibiotic resistance Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

Q39
NEET 2023 Phase 1

Which of the following is not a cloning vector?

Q40
NEET 2023 Phase 1

Main steps in the formation of Recombinant DNA are given below. Arrange these steps in a correct sequence. A. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell. B. Cutting of DNA at specific location by restriction enzyme. C. Isolation of desired DNA fragment. D. Amplification of gene of interest using PCR. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q41
NEET 2023 Phase 2

Which of the following can act as molecular scissors?

Q42
NEET 2023 Phase 2

Which of the following statement is incorrect about Agrobacterium tumifaciens?

Q43
NEET 2023 Phase 1

Upon exposure to UV radiation, DNA stained with ethidium bromide will show

Q44
NEET 2023 Phase 2

Thermostable DNA polymerase used in PCR was isolated from :

Q45
NEET 2024

The "Ti plasmid" of Agrobacterium tumefaciens stands for

Q46
NEET 2024

The following diagram showing restriction sites in E coli cloning vector pBR322. Find the role of 'X' and 'Y' genes:

Biotechnology: Principles and Processes NEET PYQ diagram
Q47
NEET 2025

In the above represented plasmid an alien piece of DNA is inserted at EcoRI site. Which of the following strategies will be chosen to select the recombinant colonies?

Biotechnology: Principles and Processes NEET PYQ diagram
Q48
NEET 2025

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation

Q49
NEET 2025

Given below are two statements : Statement I : The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of recombinant DNA. Statement II : Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are found near the wells in an agarose gel. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

Q50
NEET 2025

Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning? A. Restriction enzymes B. DNA ligase C. DNA mutase D. DNA recombinase E. DNA polymerase Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Q51
NEET 2025

The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non-recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate. Given below are two statements about this method: Statement I : The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as recombinant colonies. Statement II : The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

Q52
ReNEET 2026

Assertion A: In recombinant DNA technology, lysozyme is used for disrupting bacterial cells while cellulase is used for plant cells. Reason R: Isolation of genetic material needs disruption of cells. Choose the most appropriate answer:

Q53
ReNEET 2026

During PCR, primers bind to the DNA strands in the ______ step.

Q54
NEET 2026 (1)

Which of the following statements are correct with respect to DNA separation, isolation and visualization? A. The cutting of DNA is done by molecular scissors. B. The DNA fragments separate according to their size in an agarose gel, upon electrophoresis. C. The separated DNA fragments can be seen without staining when exposed to UV light. D. The separated DNA fragments, when stained with ethidium bromide, can be seen in visible light. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q55
ReNEET 2026

Match List-I with List-II: List-I A. Transformation B. Cloning site C. Selection D. Ori List-II I. Restriction enzyme II. Transfer DNA to host bacteria III. Replication IV. Antibiotic Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q56
ReNEET 2026

Statement I: Plasmids are autonomously replicating DNA. Statement II: Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA. Choose the most appropriate answer:

Q57
NEET 2026 (1)

Which of the following statements are not true regarding restriction endonucleases? A. They are called molecular scissors. B. These are the enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophages in E. coli. C. They cut the DNA only at the centre of the palindromic sites. D. They remove nucleotides only from the ends of DNA fragments. E. They recognise specific palindromic base-pair sequences. Choose the answer from the options given below:

Q58
NEET 2026 (1)

Insertion of a foreign DNA at BamHI site in an E.coli cloning vector pBR322 results in the loss of antibiotic resistance towards:

Q59
NEET 2026 (1)

Match List I with List II: List-I A. Genetically modified organism B. Thermostable DNA polymerase C. Ti plasmid D. pBR322 List-II (I) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (II) Bt cotton (III) Thermus aquaticus (IV) Escherichia coli Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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Biotechnology: Principles and Processes — NEET PYQ Analysis

Biotechnology: Principles and Processes is a Class 12 Botany chapter that has been consistently tested in NEET from 2016 to 2026. This page contains 59 authentic previous year questions from actual NEET exam papers — not model questions or predictions.

Understanding how NEET frames questions from this chapter is crucial for scoring well. Topics frequently tested include . Check the NEET Biology chapter-wise weightage analysis to see how this chapter ranks based on 940 PYQ analysis. For comprehensive practice with detailed NCERT-based explanations, download the MedicNEET app which covers 14,000+ questions across the full Biology syllabus.

Study Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Concept-by-Concept

Every NCERT paragraph from Biotechnology: Principles and Processes that NEET has tested. Each is its own concept page with the question, answer and exam-pattern analysis. Ranked by how many times NEET has tested the paragraph.

View all 22 concepts from Biotechnology: Principles and Processes