NEET 2026 Biology Questions

Which among the following is not a prokaryote?

Mitochondrial inner membrane encloses ___________.

Select the correct statements regarding cell membrane in eukaryotic cell. A. Membrane of human RBCs has approximately 52% protein. B. Major phospholipids are arranged in a bilayer. C. Extensions of the plasma membrane into the cell form mesosomes. D. Tails towards the inner part of lipids are hydrophobic and thus protected from aqueous medium. E. Glycocalyx is present on the outer surface of the plasma membrane. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Cell theory was formulated by ______________.

Which one of the following is the site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis?

Match List-I with List-II: List-I A. Cristae B. Cisternae C. Thylakoids D. Phospholipid List-II I. Flat membrane sacs in stroma of chloroplast II. Infoldings in mitochondria III. Cell membrane IV. Disc-shaped sacs in the Golgi apparatus Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Endomembrane system includes _______.

Choose the correct statements regarding cell organelles and their inclusions. A. The endomembrane system includes Golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria. B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum bears ribosomes on its surface. C. Both mitochondria and plastids have circular DNA. D. A network of microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments present in the cytoplasm is called cytoskeleton. E. Mitochondrion is a single membrane-bound structure. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Non-membrane bound cell organelles found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are ______.

Which of the following are characteristics of prokaryotic cells? (a) Ribosomes are made of 50S and 30S subunits; (b) They can have plasmids; (c) They contain mesosome; (d) They have peroxisomes.

The plastid that stores xanthophyll is known as __________.

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum ___________.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

Which out of the following statements is incorrect?

Which of the following statements regarding photorespiration are correct? (a) Does not occur in C3 plants; (b) CO$_2$ is consumed and O$_2$ is generated; (c) Phosphoglycolate is formed; (d) No synthesis of ATP and NADPH.

Select the correct sequence of experiments that led to a gradual understanding of photosynthesis in green plants.

How many turns of the Calvin cycle are required for the formation of three molecules of glucose?

Find the incorrect statement(s) about photosynthesis from the following: A. The water splitting complex is associated with PS I. B. C4 plants use the C3 pathway of CO2 fixation as the main biosynthetic pathway. C. In C4 plants, photorespiration does not occur. D. C3 plants exhibit 'Kranz' anatomy. E. ATP synthesis in chloroplast occurs through chemiosmosis. Choose the answer from the options given below:

The enzyme required for carboxylation in the Calvin cycle is

How many ATP and NADPH molecules are required to make one molecule of glucose through the Calvin pathway?

The photorespiration reaction catalysed by RuBisCO is: $\text{RuBP} + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow$ 3-Phosphoglycerate $+ X$. Identify $X$.

Which pigment has an absorption peak at 700 nm in the photosynthetic reaction centre PS I (P700)?

Which of the following is not a prokaryote?

Which among the following is not a prokaryote?

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

Match List-I with List-II: List-I A. Fusion of protoplasms between gametes B. Fusion of two nuclei C. Generation of haploid spores List-II I. Meiosis II. Plasmogamy III. Karyogamy Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Symbiotic association between fungi and algae are called ________.

The main criteria used for Five Kingdom Classification proposed By R.H. Whittaker (1969) included : A. Cell structure B. Body organization C. Presence of flagellum D. Reproduction E. Phylogenetic relationships Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Mad cow disease is caused by _______.

Match List-I with List-II: List-I A. Spherical B. Rod C. Comma D. Spirillum List-II I. Vibrio II. Cocci III. Spirilla IV. Bacilli Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of arrangement of bones in the lower limb of humans?

Match List I with List II related to muscular/skeletal system: List I A. Tetany B. Arthritis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Muscular dystrophy List II (I) Inflammation of joints (II) Autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction (III) Wild contraction in muscle due to low Ca$^{2+}$ in body fluid (IV) Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which of the following is the correct order of arrangement of the vertebral column from head to toe?

Sperm motility is due to ___________.

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to human endoskeleton? A. Human skull is monocondylic. B. The joint between any two adjoining vertebrae is a cartilaginous joint. C. In human beings, the number of cervical vertebrae is seven. D. All ribs except the last 2 pairs are bicephalic. E. The occipital bone of skull is articulated with atlas vertebra. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Choose the correct statements regarding muscle contraction. A. A motor neuron carries a signal sent by the Central Nervous System (CNS) to the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre. B. The neural signal generates an action potential which causes the release of Ca$^{2+}$ into sarcoplasm. C. Increase in Ca$^{2+}$ inactivates the actin for breaking cross bridges. D. Actin binds to the myosin head to form a cross bridge. E. Shortening of sarcomere takes place, by pulling actin filaments towards the centre of 'A' band. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

The number of vertebrae in a human is ________.

Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the central nervous system by the release of _____.

Select the incorrect statements from the following: A. Digestive system in Platyhelminthes is incomplete. B. Bilateral symmetry is a characteristic feature of adult Echinoderms. C. Pseudocoelom is possessed by Aschelminthes. D. Notochord is persistent throughout life in the class Chondrichthyes. E. Members of class Reptilia maintain a constant body temperature.

Select the set of fishes which belong to the class Osteichthyes:

Statement I: When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical halves, it is called radial symmetry. Statement II: In phylum Echinodermata, both adults and larvae are radially symmetrical. Choose the most appropriate answer:

A group of researchers procured some fish like animals and upon investigation the following characters were observed: A. Endoskeleton was made of cartilage. B. Ectoparasitic; as they were found attached on fish skin with their circular sucking mouth. C. Paired fins and scales were absent, but 7 pairs of gill slits were present. Which of the following species of animals did they consider to fit best with these characters?

The flightless bird with forelimbs modified as paddle-like structures suited for swimming is known as:

Statement I: The class name Reptilia refers to creeping or crawling mode of locomotion. Statement II: All organisms belonging to Reptilia have a three-chambered heart. Choose the most appropriate answer:

Which of the following is not a characteristic of chordates?

Identify the correct statements about biomolecules. A. Lipids are generally water soluble. B. Proteins are polypeptides. C. Polysaccharides are long chains of sugars. D. Adenine and guanine are substituted pyrimidines. E. Almost all enzymes are proteins. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which of the following statements are correct regarding amino acids? A. They are substituted methanes. B. Serine is an aromatic amino acid. C. Valine is a neutral amino acid. D. Lysine is an acidic amino acid. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Match List I with List II : List I A. Trypsin B. Morphine C. Concanavalin A D. Collagen List II I. Intercellular ground substance II. Lectin III. Enzyme IV. Alkaloid Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Alpha-helix is found in which level of protein structure?

The following reaction depicts the activity of a particular class of enzymes : [Figure: X and Y are substituents on a C-C bond. Substrate (X-C-C-Y) is converted by enzyme E to products X-Y and C=C]. Identify the enzymes class 'E' from the following options :

Match List-I with List-II: List-I A. Starch B. Antibody C. Concanavalin A D. Glut-4 List-II I. Fights infection II. Energy storage III. Glucose transport IV. Lectin Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Arrange the following elements in descending order of their contribution to the percentage weight of the human body: (a) Oxygen, (b) Carbon, (c) Hydrogen, (d) Nitrogen.

Length of the stem at time 0 is 20 cm. The arithmetic growth rate is 30 cm per day. What is the length of the stem at the end of the 7th day?

Which of the following plant growth regulators is used as a herbicide?

Which of the following plant growth regulators promotes internode elongation prior to flowering in cabbage?

Which one of the following is not a characteristic of plant cells in the phase of elongation?

Match List-I (Growth Regulator) with List-II (Function/Effect): List-I A. 2,4-D B. GA3 C. Kinetin D. ABA List-II I. Brewing industry II. Stimulation of stomatal closure III. Herbicide IV. Nutrient mobilisation Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Heterophyllous development in response to environment is an example of which of the following phenomena?

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

The WBC count of a person’s blood sample is 8000/cu mm. How many eosinophils and lymphocytes would be in the same blood sample approximately?

The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by _________.

The number of action potentials generated by the sino-atrial node (SAN) in a healthy human is _______ per minute.

What is the probability of having children with ‘O’ blood group, where both mother and father are heterozygous for ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group, respectively?

Select the incorrect statement with reference to Rh grouping. A. Erythroblastosis foetalis is a condition observed having foetus with Rh–ve blood and mother with Rh+ve blood. B. Rh antigen is observed on RBCs in the majority of human beings. C. Before blood transfusion, Rh group should also be matched. D. Rh incompatibility is observed when a pregnant mother is Rh–ve and the foetus is Rh+ve. E. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by administering anti-Rh antibodies to the mother immediately after the delivery of the second child.

Which of the following are characteristic features of the Solanaceae family? (a) Flowers are bisexual and actinomorphic; (b) Calyx has five sepals and is united; (c) Androecium has five stamens and is epipetalous; (d) Ovary is inferior.

Match List I (Placentation) with List II (Example): List I (Placentation): A. Marginal; B. Axile; C. Parietal; D. Basal List II (Example): I. Mustard; II. Pea; III. Marigold; IV. Lemon Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (NEET 2026)

Identify the correct floral formula of family Solanaceae. (a) ⊕ ⚥ K5 C5 A5 G(2) (sepals & petals free) (b) ⊕ ⚥ K(5) C(5) A5 G(2) (gamosepalous, gamopetalous, epipetalous, ovary superior bicarpellary) (c) % ⚥ K(5) C1+2+(2) A(9)+1 G1 (d) ⊕ ⚥ P(3+3) A(3+3) G(3) (NEET 2026)

In racemose inflorescence, _________.

Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of ________.

Arrange the following taxonomic categories in ascending order: (a) Genus, (b) Class, (c) Order, (d) Phylum, (e) Family, (f) Kingdom, (g) Species.

Genus represents __________.

Match List-I with List-II: List-I A. Family B. Genus C. Class D. Phylum E. Order List-II I. Sapindales II. Dicotyledonae III. Anacardiaceae IV. Angiospermae V. Mangifera Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which one of the following statements is not true about the universal rules of binomial nomenclature? (NEET-2026)

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

How many molecules of pyruvic acid are produced at the end of glycolysis from 206 molecules of glucose?

2(C51H98O6) + 145 O2 → 102 CO2 + 98 H2O + energy The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) of a biomolecule used for respiration, as per the above equation would be :

Match List I (Process) with List II (Location): List I A. Glycolysis B. ETS C. Accumulation of protons D. Krebs' cycle List II I. Inner mitochondrial membrane II. Mitochondrial matrix III. Cytoplasm IV. Intermembrane space Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

In humans, respiration occurs in the following steps. Arrange these steps in the correct order. A. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues B. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 across alveolar membrane C. Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air is released out D. Cellular respiration E. Transport of gases by the blood Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

In water, frogs respire using _____________.

Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Respiratory Volume) A. ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume) B. RV (Residual Volume) C. IRV (Inspiratory Reserve Volume) D. TV (Tidal Volume) List-II (Capacity in mL) I. 2500 - 3000 mL II. 500 mL III. 1000 - 1100 mL IV. 1100 - 1200 mL Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Sponges exchange O$_2$ with CO$_2$ by __________.

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

Match List-I with List-II: List-I A. Excess growth hormone B. Luteinizing hormone C. Vasopressin D. Oxytocin List-II I. Reabsorption of water and electrolytes in kidney II. Contraction of uterus during child birth III. Acromegaly IV. Ovulation Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which of the following statements related to the pituitary gland are correct? (a) It is divided anatomically into adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis; (b) It secretes follicle stimulating hormone; (c) It secretes melanocyte stimulating hormone; (d) It does not secrete prolactin.

Match List I with List II: List-I A. Cortisol B. Aldosterone C. Cholecystokinin D. Progesterone List-II I. Stimulates the formation of alveoli in mammary glands II. Produces anti-inflammatory reactions III. Stimulates reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubule IV. Stimulates secretion of pancreatic enzymes and bile juice Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

In angiosperms, root hairs arise from which one of the following regions of the root?

The main function of bulliform cells in grasses is :

Match List-I with List-II : List-I A. Conjunctive tissue B. Casparian strips C. Subsidiary cells D. Starch sheath List-II I. Specialised cells in the vicinity of guard cells II. Endodermal cells rich in starch III. Tissue between xylem and phloem IV. Endodermal cells with suberin deposition Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

In frogs, the number of pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain are ______.

Which of the following is not a part of the human central neural system?

The specific receptors for neurotransmitters in a synapse are present on __________.

The correct sequence of adult cell cycle phases is ________.

Statement I: Chromosomes are fully condensed at the end of prophase I. Statement II: Meiosis I resembles mitosis. Choose the most appropriate answer:

Match List I with List II : List-I (Phase of cell cycle) A. G1 phase B. S phase C. G2 Phase D. M phase List-II (Activity) I. Actual cell division occurs II. Cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does not replicate its DNA III. Synthesis of DNA occurs and the amount of DNA per cell doubles IV. Proteins are synthesized while cell growth continues Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Sphenopsida class belongs to _____________.

In which one of the following, the ovules are not enclosed by an ovary wall and remain exposed?

Statement I: In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes remain within the sporangia. Statement II: In gymnosperms, seeds are not covered. Choose the most appropriate answer:

The JGA (Juxta Glomerular Apparatus) is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modifications in _______ related to the same nephron.

Arrange the following events occuring in Renin-Angiotensin mechanism in the correct order: A. Increase in blood pressure and Glomerular filtration rate B. Reabsorption of Na+ and water from distal parts of tubule due to Aldosterone C. Fall in Glomerular filtration rate D. Vasoconstriction by Angiotensin II and release of Aldosterone. E. Renin converts Angiotensinogen into Angiotensin I, followed by Angiotensin II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Choose the correct statements regarding frog's anatomy: A. Hepatic portal system is the special venous connection between liver and intestine. B. There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain. C. The ureters and oviducts open separately into the cloaca in female frogs. D. Hind-brain consists of cerebellum, medulla oblongata and optic lobes. E. Sinus venosus joins the right atrium of heart. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Male frogs can be distinguished from female frogs due to the presence of A. Bulging eyes B. Vocal sacs C. Webbed digits in feet D. Copulatory pad on first digit of fore limbs E. Olive green-coloured skin with dark irregular spots Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Which or the following statements is incorrect?

Assertion A: In recombinant DNA technology, lysozyme is used for disrupting bacterial cells while cellulase is used for plant cells. Reason R: Isolation of genetic material needs disruption of cells. Choose the most appropriate answer:

During PCR, primers bind to the DNA strands in the ______ step.

Which of the following statements are correct with respect to DNA separation, isolation and visualization? A. The cutting of DNA is done by molecular scissors. B. The DNA fragments separate according to their size in an agarose gel, upon electrophoresis. C. The separated DNA fragments can be seen without staining when exposed to UV light. D. The separated DNA fragments, when stained with ethidium bromide, can be seen in visible light. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Match List-I with List-II: List-I A. Transformation B. Cloning site C. Selection D. Ori List-II I. Restriction enzyme II. Transfer DNA to host bacteria III. Replication IV. Antibiotic Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Statement I: Plasmids are autonomously replicating DNA. Statement II: Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA. Choose the most appropriate answer:

Which of the following statements are not true regarding restriction endonucleases? A. They are called molecular scissors. B. These are the enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophages in E. coli. C. They cut the DNA only at the centre of the palindromic sites. D. They remove nucleotides only from the ends of DNA fragments. E. They recognise specific palindromic base-pair sequences. Choose the answer from the options given below:

Insertion of a foreign DNA at BamHI site in an E.coli cloning vector pBR322 results in the loss of antibiotic resistance towards:

Match List I with List II: List-I A. Genetically modified organism B. Thermostable DNA polymerase C. Ti plasmid D. pBR322 List-II (I) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (II) Bt cotton (III) Thermus aquaticus (IV) Escherichia coli Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

What is the probability of having children with 'O' blood group, where both mother and father are heterozygous for 'A' and 'B' blood group, respectively?

Statement I: Down's syndrome is caused by the absence of one of the X-chromosomes. Statement II: Turner's syndrome is caused by the presence of an additional copy of the chromosomes. Choose the correct answer:

Assertion A: In an experiment, Mendel observed that the F1 progeny plants are all tall and none are dwarf. Reason R: Stem height is a contrasting trait, with tall being dominant and dwarf being recessive. Choose the most appropriate answer:

Which one of the following disorders is caused by the substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val) at the sixth position of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule?

Which of the following statements are true with reference to the sex-determination in honeybees? A. An offspring formed from the union of a sperm and an egg, develops as a female (queen or worker). B. An unfertilized egg develops as a male by parthenogenesis. C. A male has half the number of chromosomes than that of a female. D. Males produce sperms by meiosis. E. Honeybees have a haplodiploid sex-determination system. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Match List I with List II : List-I A. Incomplete dominance B. Co-dominance C. Pleiotropy D. Polygenic inheritance List-II I. Human skin colour II. Inheritance of flower colour in Antirrhinum sp. III. Phenylketonuria disease in humans IV. ABO blood groups Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

In a population of a grasshopper species, the chromosome number of some members is 23 and some other members possess 24 chromosomes. The 23 and 24 chromosome-bearing members in this species are ______.

The sixth mutant codon of beta globin gene causing polymerization of Haemoglobin and change in RBC shape is ______.

For a person with blood group 'O', which of the following is not a possible combination of parents' blood-group genotypes?

Natural selection can lead to _________. (a) stabilisation; (b) genetic drift; (c) directional change; (d) disruption.

Evolution of human appears parallel to the progressive development of brain and language skills. As such, the evolution of individual species in the sequence of their appearance is:

A population of diploid organisms is at Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium. If the frequency of allele A is 0.1, the frequency of AA is ________.

Assertion A: Forelimbs of humans and bats are homologous. Reason R: Forelimbs of humans and bats have similar anatomical structure. Choose the most appropriate answer:

Match List I with List II with respect to chronology of evolution of life forms List-I A. About 65 mya B. About 500 mya C. About 350 mya D. About 320 mya List-II (I) Jawless fish probably evolved (II) The dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth (III) Seaweeds and few plants probably existed (IV) Invertebrates were formed and became active Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Adaptive radiation in placental mammals and Australian marsupials, leading to similarity between distant species, is an example of ________.

Which of the following is not an example of convergent evolution?

Statement I: Modern Homo sapiens arose in Australia and moved across continents. Statement II: Homo sapiens arose around 75,000 to 10,000 years ago. Choose the most appropriate answer:

Which of the following is NOT evidence for evolution?

Exploration of molecular, genetic and species level diversity for novel products of economic importance is known as:

Since the origin and diversification of life on Earth, there have been five episodes of mass extinction of species. How is the sixth extinction, which is in progress, different from the previous episodes? (NEET 2026)

Which of the following statements are correct? A. The Amazon rainforest being cut and cleared for cultivation of soyabeans is an example of habitat loss. B. Steller's sea cow and passenger pigeon became extinct due to over-exploitation by humans. C. The Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in East Africa helped in population growth of cichlid fish in the lake. D. Water hyacinth is an invasive species. E. When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it are not affected. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (NEET 2026)

Arrange the following in descending order of the number of species in the Amazonian rain forest: (a) Plants, (b) Birds, (c) Fishes, (d) Invertebrates, (e) Mammals.

Western Ghats have a large number of plant and animal species that are not found anywhere else. Which of the following terms will you use to notify such species? (NEET 2023 Odisha)

Assertion A: The Abingdon tortoise in the Galapagos islands became extinct within a decade after goats were introduced. Reason R: Goats were more efficient at browsing than the Abingdon tortoise. Choose the most appropriate answer:

“The Evil Quartet” of biodiversity loss includes which of the following?

Which of the following is an in situ conservation method?

Which of the following in the female gametophyte of an angiosperm helps in guiding the pollen tube for fertilizing the eggs?

If the diploid chromosome number of a typical angiosperm is 36, what would be the chromosome number in its endosperm?

Arrange the following in the correct developmental sequence related to microsporogenesis: A. Microspore tetrads B. Sporogenous tissue C. Pollen grains D. Pollen mother cells Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (NEET 2026)

Which one of the following is a triploid cell?

Which one of the following types of pollination brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma?

How many theca are present in each lobe of a typical bilobed angiosperm anther?

Which of the following plants produces non-albuminous seeds?

Match List-I with List-II: List-I A. Marginal placentation B. Axile placentation C. Parietal placentation D. Free central placentation List-II I. Argemone II. Tomato III. Primrose IV. Pea Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

The following are the stages of life cycle of Plasmodium. Arrange the stages in the proper order. A. The parasites reproduce asexually in RBCs, bursting the cells. B. The parasites reproduce asexually in liver cells, bursting the cells and releasing into blood. C. Gametocytes develop in RBCs. D. Sporozoites reach the liver through the blood. E. Female mosquito injects sporozoites into humans during bite. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Match List I with List II: List I (Drug) A. Nicotine B. Morphine C. Heroin D. Cocaine List II (Effect) I. Causes sense of euphoria and increased energy II. Stimulates adrenal gland to release catecholamines into blood circulation III. Effective sedative and painkiller IV. A depressant; slows down body function Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which of the following statements is correct about Plasmodium?

Which of the following diseases is not sexually transmitted?

Which of the following is used as an effective sedative and painkiller for treating post-surgery patients?

Colostrum, secreted by the mother during the initial days of lactation, is abundant in ________.

Which of the following are secondary lymphoid organs? (a) Bone marrow, (b) Tonsils, (c) Spleen, (d) Thymus.

Which of the following hormones is not secreted by the human placenta?

Which of the following structures is not a part of the male reproductive system?

Spermatogonia undergo a series of cell divisions to produce sperms. Select the correct statements from the following: A. Spermatogonia always undergo meiotic cell division. B. Primary spermatocytes divide mitotically to produce secondary spermatocytes. C. Secondary spermatocytes, through their second meiotic division, produce haploid spermatids. D. Spermatids produce spermatozoa through mitosis. E. Spermatids transform into spermatozoa by spermiogenesis. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (NEET 2026)

Arrange the following cell layers/structures around the female gamete, from outer to inner side: A. Zona pellucida B. Perivitelline space C. Corona radiata D. Plasma membrane of ovum Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (NEET 2026)

Match List I with List II related to embryonic development at various months of pregnancy: List-I A. The foetus movement starts and hair appears on the head B. The foetus develops limbs and digits C. The foetus develops external genital organs D. The foetus body is covered with fine hair; eyelids separate and eyelashes are formed List-II (I) 24 weeks of pregnancy (II) 20 weeks of pregnancy (III) 8 weeks of pregnancy (IV) 12 weeks of pregnancy Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (NEET 2026)

Statement I: Ovulation is caused by LH surge leading to rupture of Graafian follicles. Statement II: The Graafian follicle remaining after ovulation transforms into the corpus luteum and secretes a large amount of estrogen. Choose the most appropriate answer:

The covering of the ovum at ovulation is _________.

Which of the following statements about the lac-operon is correct?

The sixth mutant codon of beta globin gene causing polymerization of Haemoglobin and change in RBC shape is ______.

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to packaging of DNA helix ? A. Histones are organized to form a unit of eight molecules called histone octamer. B. Histones are negatively charged basic proteins. C. Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues - lysine and arginine. D. The positively charged DNA is wrapped around the histone octamer to form nucleosome. E. The packaging of chromatin at higher levels requires an additional set of proteins called non-histone chromosomal proteins. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Which of the following enzymes synthesizes precursor mRNA?

Arrange the following steps of DNA fingerprinting in a correct sequence. A. Isolation of DNA and its digestion by restriction endonucleases. B. Hybridisation using a labelled VNTR probe. C. Transferring of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes. D. Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography. E. Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

In the lac operon, the z gene codes for

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to a transcription unit? A. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by three regions : promoter, structural gene and terminator. B. The promoter is said to be located towards the 5-end of the structural gene. C. The promoter is a DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA polymerase. D. The promoter defines the template and coding strands. E. The terminator is located towards the 3-end of the coding strand and it defines the end of the process of transcription. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Assertion A: The logistic growth model of populations is considered more realistic than the exponential growth model. Reason R: Resources are finite. Choose the most appropriate answer:

Consider a population of 10 million cells with a per-capita birth rate of 0.002 (per unit time) and a per-capita death rate of 0.002 (per unit time). The expected number of cells after 10 generations is ______.

Which of the following equations depicts Verhulst-Pearl logistic population growth?

Which one of the following is an appropriate example of sexual deceit?

Choose the correct statements regarding population interactions between two species. A. In both parasitism and commensalism, only one species benefits and the other species is harmed. B. Both species benefit in mutualism. C. Both species benefit in commensalism. D. In parasitism, only one species benefits and the other species is harmed. E. In amensalism, one species is harmed and the other is unaffected. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (NEET 2026)

Match List-I with List-II: List-I A. Both species are harmed B. One species is harmed and the other is benefited C. Both species are benefited D. One is benefited while the other has no effect List-II I. Predation II. Mutualism III. Competition IV. Commensalism Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which of the following are primary consumers in a food chain?

Match List I with List II: List-I A. Decomposition B. Detritus C. Mineralisation D. Humification List-II I. Accumulation of dark coloured amorphous colloidal substance II. Release of inorganic nutrients by the activity of microbes in soil III. Breaking down of complex organic matter into inorganic substances. IV. Dead remains of plants and animals including fecal matter Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Which of the following statements are correct? (a) Energy flow from producers to consumers is unidirectional; (b) Energy pyramid can never be inverted; (c) Transfer of energy follows the 1% law.

Ecological pyramids represent the relationship between the organisms at different trophic levels and they are generally inverted for:

Match List I with List II : List I A. Productivity B. Net primary productivity C. Gross primary productivity D. Secondary productivity List II I. Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses II. Rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers III. Rate of biomass production IV. Rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

What is the reason behind production of large holes in 'Swiss Cheese'?

A biocontrol agent to be a part of an integrated pest management should be

Match List I with List II: List I (Bioactive molecules) A. Streptokinase B. Statins C. Lipases D. Cyclosporin A List II (Importance) I. Immunosuppressive agent II. Removal of clots from the blood vessels III. Blood cholesterol-lowering agent IV. Detergent formulations Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Among the following pairs of microbes, which pair has both the microbes that can be used as biofertilizers?

Which of the following is used as a clot buster?

Choose the correct statement regarding GIFT to overcome infertility.

Match List I and List II: List-I (A) Progestasert (B) Multiload 375 (C) Diaphragm (D) Saheli List-II (i) Barrier made of rubber used by females (ii) Oral contraceptive (iii) Hormone releasing IUD (iv) Copper releasing IUD Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (NEET 2026)

The method of directly injecting a sperm into the ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called:

The human protein named α-1-antitrypsin, obtained from transgenic animals, is used for the treatment of ______.

The inactive form of Bt toxin is converted to the active form in the insect gut _______.

The toxin proteins isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis, coded by which of the following genes would control cotton bollworms and corn borer, respectively? (NEET 2026)