ReNEET 2026 Question Paper — All 180 Questions

The complete Re-NEET UG 2026 paper (held 21 June 2026) — read all 180 questions with options below, or download the full paper with answer key and detailed solutions as a PDF.

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Physics · Q1–Q45

A particle of mass M moves along a horizontal x-axis from x=0 to x=L. The coefficient of kinetic friction varies as µ_k(x)=µ₀-α x, where µ₀,α are constants of appropriate dimensions, so that µ_k(L)=0. The total work done by the frictional force during the motion is nµ₀ MgL. The value of n is:

(A)3
(B)1
(C)(1)/(3)
(D)(1)/(2)

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The mean free path of molecules in an ideal gas A is half that of another ideal gas B. The diameter of the spherical molecules of gas A is twice the diameter of the molecules of B. If the number densities of gases A and B are n_A and n_B respectively, the correct option is:

(A)n_A=n_B
(B)n_A=2n_B
(C)n_A=(1)/(4)n_B
(D)n_A=(1)/(2)n_B

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Two identical inductors are connected in two different configurations P (series) and Q (parallel), where a time-varying current I(t) flows, as shown. The induced emf between points a and b for configuration P is E_P and for Q is E_Q. The ratio E_P/E_Q is: [Neglect mutual inductance.]

(A)(1)/(4)
(B)(1)/(2)
(C)1
(D)2

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For sound waves, if the number of nodes for the 5^th harmonic of an open-ended pipe is n and that for the 9^th harmonic of the same pipe with one of its ends closed is m, the ratio (n)/(m) is:

(A)(5)/(9)
(B)(9)/(5)
(C)1
(D)(3)/(5)

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Consider a long solenoid of length l and radius r. If n is the number of turns per unit length and µ₀ the permeability of free space, the inductance of the solenoid is:

(A)µ₀π n² r² l
(B)µ₀ n² r² l
(C)(µ₀)/(2π)n² r² l
(D)2µ₀π n² r² l

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A particle moves along a straight line with position s(t)=α t²-β t+γ, where α=1 ms⁻², β=6 ms⁻¹, γ=5 m. The average speed of the particle (in ms⁻¹) from t=0 to t=6 s is:

(A)12
(B)6
(C)3
(D)0

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Consider the nuclear reaction ²³⁸U→²³⁴Th+⁴He. Taking the masses of ²³⁸U, ²³⁴Th and ⁴He as 238.050 u, 234.043 u and 4.003 u respectively, the Q-value of the reaction (in keV) is: [1 u =931.5 MeV c⁻²]

(A)3726
(B)3730
(C)3736
(D)3740

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A beam of light falls on a metal surface such that photo-electrons are generated. If the power of the light source starts to decrease linearly with time t, then the variation of the photocurrent I and the magnitude of the stopping potential |V| with time is best represented by:

(A)I decreases linearly with t; |V| stays constant
(B)I decreases; |V| increases
(C)I constant; |V| decreases
(D)I constant; |V| constant

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Three identical capacitors P, Q and S, each of capacitance C, are connected to a battery of voltage V as shown. If the energy stored in capacitor P is U_P and the total energy stored in the system is U_T, then the ratio (U_P)/(U_T) is:

(A)(2)/(3)
(B)(1)/(3)
(C)(1)/(2)
(D)(1)/(6)

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10.

Water flows in streamline motion through a horizontal pipe of circular cross-section as shown. The pressure difference of water between P and Q is 15 Nm⁻². The areas of cross-section at P and Q are 40 cm² and 20 cm² respectively. The rate of flow of water through the pipe (in cm³s⁻¹) is: [density of water =1000 kg m⁻³]

(A)100
(B)200
(C)300
(D)400

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11.

A current I₀ flows through a metallic circular loop of radius r. The resistance of segment ABC is half that of ADC. The magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre O of the loop is:

(A)(µ₀ I₀)/(12r)
(B)(µ₀ I₀)/(4r)
(C)(µ₀ I₀)/(2r)
(D)(µ₀ I₀)/(2π r)

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12.

In the measurement of viscosity of liquids using the terminal velocity experiment, spherical balls of the same radius but different densities are used. The variation of the terminal velocity v with the ratio of the density of the spherical ball (σ) to the density of the liquid (ρ), σ/ρ, is best represented by:

(A)straight line of positive slope, negative intercept (crosses axis at σ/ρ=1)
(B)straight line through origin
(C)straight line of positive slope, positive intercept
(D)horizontal line

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13.

Two planets P₁ and P₂ with equal mass have radii R₁ and R₂ respectively, where R₂=(R₁)/(2). The escape speeds of P₁ and P₂ are v₁ and v₂ respectively. Then (v₂)/(v₁) is:

(A)(1)/(2)
(B)1
(C)2
(D)2

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14.

In a solar system, the time-period of revolution of a planet tracing a circular orbit of radius R is proportional to:

(A)R¹/2
(B)R³/2
(C)R²
(D)R³

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15.

Two infinitely long parallel conducting wires A and B carry currents I and 2I respectively in the same direction. Wire A has uniform mass per unit length λ and lies on an insulated floor. Wire B is kept fixed at a height h above the floor. The minimum magnitude of h so that wire A does not rise from the floor is: [g = acceleration due to gravity, µ₀ = permeability of free space]

(A)(µ₀ I²)/(2πλ g)
(B)(µ₀ I²)/(πλ g)
(C)(2µ₀ I²)/(πλ g)
(D)(4µ₀ I²)/(πλ g)

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16.

An ideal Zener diode with breakdown voltage of -3 V is reverse biased with a negative input voltage V_i=-5 V. In the circuit shown (C–[Zener]–B–R–A), the magnitude of the voltage difference between points B and A is:

(A)3 V
(B)2 V
(C)1 V
(D)0 V

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17.

In an adiabatic expansion, the temperature of one mole of an ideal monatomic gas (γ=5/3) decreases from 60 K to 50 K. The work done by the gas in the process is: [Take R=8.3 J mol⁻¹K⁻¹]

(A)41.5 J
(B)83 J
(C)124.5 J
(D)166 J

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18.

A ray of light of wavelength λ is incident on three photoelectric cells 1,2,3 with threshold wavelengths λ₁,λ₂,λ₃ and stopping potentials V₁,V₂,V₃ respectively. Given λ₁<λ, λ₂>λ, λ₃λ, the correct option is:

(A)V₁=0, V₂<V₃
(B)V₁=0, V₂>V₃
(C)V₁>V₂, V₃=0
(D)V₁<V₂, V₃=0

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19.

A photon and an electron, each of 20 eV energy, move in free space. The ratio of the linear momentum of the electron p_e to that of the photon p_ph, _ep_ph, is: [speed of light =3×10⁸ ms⁻¹, e=1.6×10⁻¹⁹ C, m_e=9×10⁻³¹ kg]

(A)(2)/(450)
(B)(1)/(250)
(C)225
(D)275

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20.

Which of the following measurements requires ‘index correction’?

(A)Measurement of resistance of a wire using meter bridge
(B)Measurement of gravitational acceleration using simple pendulum
(C)Measurement of focal length of lenses using optical bench
(D)Measurement of speed of sound using resonance tube

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21.

A unit positive point charge is taken slowly through an infinitesimally thin tube inside a charged dielectric sphere of radius R having uniform positive charge density ρ. The initial and final positions A and B are at distances 2R and 3R from the centre. In this process the magnitude of the total work done on the point charge is (ρ R²)/(nε₀). The value of n is: (ε₀ = permittivity of vacuum)

(A)2
(B)6
(C)9
(D)18

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22.

Three media P, Q and R have refractive indices 1, 1.25 and 1.5 respectively. Medium Q of thickness 5 cm is placed between extended media P and R. An object O is at the centre of Q. Viewed from P (near normal) the apparent depth of O is h₁; viewed from R the apparent depth is h₂. The value of |h₁-h₂| (in cm) is:

(A)0
(B)1
(C)2
(D)3

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23.

A frictionless circular wire of unit radius lies in a horizontal plane. Two point particles of unit mass start simultaneously from A (θ=(π)/(2)) with identical uniform angular speeds in opposite directions and meet again at B (θ=-(π)/(2)). Which figure best represents the magnitude of the total linear momentum P of the system as a function of θ?

(A)horizontal line (constant P)
(B)two lobes meeting at zero at θ=-(π)/(2)
(C)a single dome: P rises from 0 at θ=(π)/(2), peaks, returns to 0 at θ=-(π)/(2)
(D)straight line decreasing

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24.

The temperature of a metallic sphere of radius R is increased by a small amount Δ T. If the linear coefficient of thermal expansion of the metal is α, the approximate increase in the volume of the sphere is:

(A)2π R³αΔ T
(B)3R³αΔ T
(C)4π R³αΔ T
(D)6R³αΔ T

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25.

A cylindrical cork of uniform density floats in a liquid of density ρ₁. When depressed slightly and released it oscillates harmonically with time period T. If the same cork floats in another liquid of density ρ₂, the oscillation has period 2T. The value of (ρ₂)/(ρ₁) is:

(A)4
(B)2
(C)12
(D)14

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26.

One main-scale division of a Vernier calliper equals 1 mm and the Vernier scale has 10 divisions. When the jaws touch, the Vernier zero is to the left of the main-scale zero and its 4^th division coincides with a main-scale division. If this calliper measures a wire length as 1 cm, the actual length of the wire is:

(A)0.60 cm
(B)0.96 cm
(C)1.00 cm
(D)1.04 cm

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27.

A solid sphere A of radius R and mass M is attached at a point to a smaller solid sphere B of radius r<R and mass m<M, their line of centres horizontal. The moment of inertia of the system about a vertical axis through the centre of A is I_A, and about a vertical axis through the centre of B is I_B. The difference I_A-I_B is:

(A)(M-m)(R+r)²
(B)(m-M)(R+r)²
(C)(m-M)(R-r)²
(D)0

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28.

Consider a spring-mass simple harmonic oscillator in one dimension. The mass of the particle is m kg and the spring constant is k Nm⁻¹. At a given instant the extension of the spring is x m and the speed of the particle is v ms⁻¹. On the x–v plane, if the graph of v as a function of x is a circle, then the correct option is:

(A)k=(1)/(m)
(B)k=m
(C)k=m²
(D)k=√(m)

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29.

The lens combination shown consists of two lenses L₁ (focal length +10 cm) and L₂ (focal length -10 cm). An object O is placed 30 cm to the left of L₁, and L₂ is 3 cm to the right of L₁. The position of the image formed is:

(A)20 cm to the left of the concave lens
(B)60 cm to the left of the concave lens
(C)30 cm to the right of the concave lens
(D)60 cm to the right of the concave lens

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30.

An ac voltage V=220(2×10³t) V is applied to a series LCR circuit. The current amplitude in the circuit is: [L=10 mH, C=25 µF, R=100 Ω]

(A)2.2 A
(B)5.5 A
(C)11.0 A
(D)22.0 A

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31.

A thin horizontal disc rotates about a vertical axis passing through its fixed centre O. Its angular momentum is L_A and L_B when computed about points A and B respectively, where OB=2× OA. The value of (L_A)/(L_B) is:

(A)14
(B)12
(C)1
(D)2

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32.

A conducting loop of finite resistance lies in the x–y plane in a constant magnetic field along z. The area of the loop varies with time as A=A₀(1+ t). The figure that correctly indicates the qualitative behaviour of the power P dissipated in the loop as a function of time is:

(A)two full positive humps per period (≈ | t| shape)
(B)² t shape — humps that touch zero periodically
(C)a constant horizontal line
(D)a monotonically rising curve

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33.

A point charge Q is placed inside a cavity within a solid isolated conducting sphere. Consider points A (inside cavity), B and C (outside the sphere, equidistant from its centre) with field magnitudes E_A,E_B,E_C. The correct option is:

(A)E_A=0, E_B=E_C
(B)E_A≠0, E_B=E_C
(C)E_A=0, E_B>E_C
(D)E_A≠0, E_B<E_C

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34.

A fixed uniformly charged insulating sphere of radius R has total charge +Q. A point charge -q (q Q, mass m) is released from rest at a distance 3R from the centre. When it reaches the surface of the sphere, its speed is: (ε₀ = permittivity of vacuum; neglect gravity)

(A)√((3Qq)/(4πε₀ mR))
(B)√((2Qq)/(3πε₀ mR))
(C)√((Qq)/(3πε₀ mR))
(D)√((Qq)/(4πε₀ mR))

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35.

In the Geiger–Marsden experiment, the number of scattered α-particles N(θ) is plotted as a function of scattering angle θ. Which option represents the correct plot?

(A)N(θ) increasing with θ
(B)a broad maximum near θ≈60°
(C)N(θ) very large at small θ and falling steeply as θ increases
(D)a symmetric peak centred at θ≈90°

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36.

Consider two circuits A and B, each with two resistors. One resistor has a positive temperature coefficient +α and the other -α. In circuit A the two are in series; in circuit B they are in parallel, across the same battery. At the initial temperature each resistance is R₀. As temperature increases, the correct statement about the currents I_A and I_B is:

(A)I_A remains constant while I_B increases
(B)I_A decreases while I_B increases
(C)I_A increases while I_B decreases
(D)both I_A and I_B remain constant

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37.

Let σ_s, k_B and b represent the Stefan–Boltzmann constant, Boltzmann constant and Wien's displacement-law constant respectively. The dimension of σ_s k_B⁻¹ b is:

(A)[L⁻¹T⁻¹K⁻²]
(B)[L⁻¹K⁻²]
(C)[L⁻¹T⁻¹K⁻³]
(D)[L⁻¹T⁻¹K⁻⁴]

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38.

An electromagnetic wave travelling in a lossless dielectric medium of dielectric constant ε_r=9 has electric field E_x=E₀(kz-2π×10⁶t) Vm⁻¹, where E₀ is the amplitude and k the wave vector. Among the following, the INCORRECT choice is:

(A)The speed of the EM wave inside the medium is 10⁸ ms⁻¹
(B)The wavelength of the EM wave inside the medium is 300 m
(C)The magnetic field is B_y=(B₀)/(v)(kz-2π×10⁶t) where v is the wave speed in the medium
(D)The direction of propagation of the EM wave is along +z

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39.

One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a cyclic process shown in the figure (rectangle a→ b→ c→ d in the P–V plane, with P in N m⁻² between 100 and 300, and V in m³ between 2 and 5). The total heat supplied to the gas is:

(A)400 J
(B)500 J
(C)600 J
(D)800 J

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40.

An electron is revolving in an excited state of a Hydrogen atom with velocity √(25.6)×10⁵ ms⁻¹. The radius of the orbit is x×10⁻⁹ m. The value of x is: [m_e=9×10⁻³¹ kg, e=-1.6×10⁻¹⁹ C, (1)/(4πε₀)=9×10⁹ Nm²C⁻²]

(A)4
(B)3
(C)2
(D)1

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41.

A car travels on a circular racetrack of radius 50 m, banked at angle θ. If the car travels at a speed 10 ms⁻¹, the wear and tear on its tyres is minimum. Taking g=10 ms⁻², the value of θ is:

(A)⁻¹((1)/(5))
(B)⁻¹((2)/(5))
(C)⁻¹((3)/(2))
(D)⁻¹(23)

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42.

Three identical p-n junction diodes D₁, D₂ and D₃ are connected across a battery as shown (each in series with a 1 kΩ resistor). If the widths of the depletion regions of D₁, D₂, D₃ are W₁, W₂, W₃ respectively, then the correct option is:

(A)W₁>W₂>W₃
(B)W₃=W₁>W₂
(C)W₃>W₂>W₁
(D)W₂>W₁=W₃

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43.

The table lists parts of the electromagnetic spectrum and their major applications. Match List-I (P Microwave, Q UV rays, R Gamma rays, S Radio wave) with List-II (I For purifying the water, II For warming the food, III For AM and FM communication systems, IV For treating the cancer cells). The correct option is:

(A)P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-IV
(B)P-I, Q-IV, R-II, S-III
(C)P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III
(D)P-II, Q-IV, R-III, S-I

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44.

A bob B of mass m hangs at rest vertically from the ceiling by a massless string of length 10 m. A point mass A of mass m travelling horizontally with speed 10 ms⁻¹ hits bob B elastically. The bob B rises h metre after the collision. Taking g=10 ms⁻² and neglecting the size of the bob, the value of h is:

(A)8
(B)7
(C)5
(D)2.5

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45.

An ideal gas is made of polyatomic molecules. Each molecule has three translational, three rotational and f vibrational modes. If the ratio of heat capacities C_P/C_V of the gas is 8/7, then the value of f is:

(A)4
(B)3
(C)2
(D)1

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Chemistry · Q46–Q90

46.

For the following reaction sequence, choose the correct option. Benzene (i) CH₃COCl, AlCl₃ (ii) NaOCl P+Q

(A)If P is the sodium salt of a carboxylic acid, Q is a primary alcohol
(B)P and Q are aromatic compounds
(C)If P gives a carboxylic acid on acidification, Q gives a poisonous gas on exposure to air and light
(D)Both P and Q are carbonyl compounds

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47.

Given two statements — Statement-I: [Fe(ox)₃]³⁻ is chiral. Statement-II: trans-[Cr(H₂O)₂(ox)₂]⁻ is chiral. (oxH₂ = HOOC–COOH). Choose the most appropriate answer:

(A)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(B)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(C)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(D)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

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48.

The carbocation C₆H₅-+CH-CH₃ (1-phenylethyl cation) is stabilized by the interaction of the empty p orbital with:

(A)filled σ and filled π orbitals
(B)empty σ and empty π* orbitals
(C)empty σ* and filled π orbitals
(D)empty σ* and empty π* orbitals

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49.

In potash alum, the ratio of K+ and SO₄²⁻ ions is:

(A)1:2
(B)2:1
(C)2:3
(D)3:2

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50.

The correct statement about peptides and proteins is:

(A)Tertiary structure of proteins has two or more polypeptide subunits
(B)Only the proteins having a quaternary structure are biologically active
(C)In β-pleated sheet structures, peptide chains are held together by intermolecular hydrogen bonds
(D)In α-helices, the polypeptide chain is twisted into a left-handed screw (helix) through intramolecular hydrogen bonds

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51.

The numbers 17.0145 and 21.0235 were rounded to three figures after the decimal point. The resulting numbers, respectively, are:

(A)17.014 and 21.023
(B)17.015 and 21.023
(C)17.014 and 21.024
(D)17.015 and 21.024

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52.

The correct order of solubility of the given salts in water at 298 K (Ksp: AgBr =5.0×10⁻¹³; Zn(OH)₂=1.0×10⁻¹⁵; Hg₂Cl₂=1.3×10⁻¹⁸) is:

(A)Hg₂Cl₂ > Zn(OH)₂ > AgBr
(B)AgBr > Zn(OH)₂ > Hg₂Cl₂
(C)Hg₂Cl₂ > AgBr > Zn(OH)₂
(D)Zn(OH)₂ > AgBr > Hg₂Cl₂

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53.

Among the following, the correct trend in electron gain enthalpy (most negative first) is:

(A)F > Cl > Br > I
(B)Br > Cl > F > I
(C)Cl > F > Br > I
(D)I > Br > Cl > F

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54.

Assertion A: For an ideal solution formed by mixing liquids P and Q, Δ_mixH=0 and Δ_mixV=0. Reason R: No interactions occur between P and Q. Choose the most appropriate answer:

(A)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(B)Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C)A is correct but R is not correct
(D)A is not correct but R is correct

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55.

The amino acid that gives a red-blood colour on treating its sodium fusion extract with sodium nitroprusside is:

(A)leucine
(B)threonine
(C)methionine
(D)serine

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56.

The standard electrode potential (E^°) for the half-cell reaction Fe³⁺ + e⁻ → Fe²⁺ at 298 K is: [Given E^°(Fe³⁺/Fe)=-0.04 V and E^°(Fe²⁺/Fe)=-0.44 V]

(A)+0.40 V
(B)+0.76 V
(C)-0.48 V
(D)+0.92 V

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57.

In acidic medium, 10 mL of 0.25 M oxalic acid is titrated with KMnO₄ solution. If the volume of KMnO₄ required to reach the end point is 10 mL, the strength of the KMnO₄ solution is:

(A)0.10 M
(B)0.20 M
(C)0.25 M
(D)0.15 M

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58.

According to crystal field theory, the correct order of ligands with respect to their decreasing field strength is:

(A)CO > NH₃ > H₂O > Cl-
(B)CO > H₂O > NH₃ > Cl-
(C)Cl- > H₂O > NH₃ > CO
(D)Cl- > NH₃ > H₂O > CO

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59.

Two moles of an ideal gas undergo free expansion from 10 L to 100 L at 300 K. The values of Δ S_system and Δ S_surroundings are (R = universal gas constant):

(A)Δ S_system=0; Δ S_surr=0
(B)Δ S_system=4.606R; Δ S_surr=-4.606R
(C)Δ S_system=0; Δ S_surr=4.606R
(D)Δ S_system=4.606R; Δ S_surr=0

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60.

2A →[k] B is a zero-order reaction with k=1.0 mol L⁻¹min⁻¹. If the initial concentration of A is 2 M, the time taken to complete 75% of the reaction is:

(A)1.5 min
(B)0.75 min
(C)1.0 min
(D)2.0 min

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61.

Assertion A: Generally, 3d transition metals have high melting points. Reason R: Involvement of 3d-electrons in addition to 4s-electrons in the interatomic metallic bonding. Choose the most appropriate answer:

(A)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(B)Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C)A is correct but R is not correct
(D)A is not correct but R is correct

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62.

For a strong electrolyte salt XY, the plot of _m versus √(c) has slope -90.0 S cm²mol⁻3/2L¹/2 at 298 K. At 0.01 M, _m=145.0 S cm²mol⁻¹. The limiting molar conductivity of Y⁻ ion, λ⁰_Y⁻ (in S cm²mol⁻¹), is: [Given λ⁰_X⁺=74.0 S cm²mol⁻¹]

(A)80.0
(B)100.0
(C)90.0
(D)76.0

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63.

The amount of carbon dioxide evolved upon complete combustion of 116 g of n-butane is: (Atomic masses: H =1, C =12, O =16)

(A)352 g
(B)322 g
(C)176 g
(D)362 g

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64.

For an elementary chemical reaction, the Arrhenius plot ( k vs 1/T) is given. If the activation energy is 6.64 kJ mol⁻¹ and R=8.3 J K⁻¹mol⁻¹, the temperature at which the rate constant becomes e² min⁻¹ is:

(A)125 K
(B)150 K
(C)200 K
(D)250 K

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65.

Two statements — Statement-I: Heating NaCl with concentrated H₂SO₄ and MnO₂ results in oxidation of Mn. Statement-II: Heating NaI with concentrated H₂SO₄ and MnO₂ results in reduction of Mn. Choose the most appropriate answer:

(A)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(B)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(C)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(D)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

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66.

Among the species below, the spin-only magnetic moment is highest for: (Atomic numbers: Ti =22, Mn =25, Fe =26, Co =27)

(A)[Mn(CN)₆]³⁻
(B)[Fe(CN)₆]³⁻
(C)[Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺
(D)[Ti(H₂O)₆]³⁺

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67.

The lanthanide ion having four unpaired electrons is: (Atomic numbers: Ce =58, Nd =60, Tb =65, Ho =67)

(A)Nd³⁺
(B)Ce³⁺
(C)Tb³⁺
(D)Ho³⁺

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68.

The formula of tetraammineaquachloridocobalt(III) chloride is:

(A)[Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]·H₂O
(B)[Co(NH₃)₄]Cl₃·H₂O
(C)[Co(NH₃)₄(H₂O)Cl]Cl
(D)[Co(NH₃)₄(H₂O)Cl]Cl₂

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69.

For the reversible processes of 1 mol of an ideal gas shown (a cycle p₁V₁T₁→ p₂V₂T₁ [process 1, isothermal] → p₃V₃T₂ [process 2, adiabatic] → p₄V₄T₂ [process 3, isothermal] → back [process 4, adiabatic]), with w₁,w₂,w₃,w₄ the work done (in calories) and Δ U₂,Δ U₄ the internal-energy changes in processes 2 and 4. [Use R=2 cal K⁻¹mol⁻¹.] The correct option is:

(A)w₁+w₃=-2T₁(V₂)/(V₁)-2T₂(V₄)/(V₃)
(B)w₂+w₄=Δ U₂-Δ U₄
(C)w₁+w₂=2T₁(V₂)/(V₁)
(D)w₁+w₂+w₃+w₄=0

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70.

Assertion A: The first ionization enthalpy of O is lower than that of N and F. Reason R: The loss of an electron from O leads to a stable half-filled p orbital. Choose the most appropriate answer:

(A)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(B)Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C)A is correct but R is not correct
(D)A is not correct but R is correct

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71.

Consider these statements about solutions formed by mixing two liquids: (A) An ideal solution obeys Raoult's law throughout the composition range. (B) A mixture of chloroform and acetone shows negative deviation from Raoult's law. (C) A mixture of aniline and phenol shows positive deviation from Raoult's law. The correct option is:

(A)A and B only
(B)B and C only
(C)A only
(D)A and C only

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72.

One of the products formed in the following reaction is: cyclohexyl–MgBr + cyclohexyl–NH₂→

(A)a dicyclohexylamine ((C₆H₁₁)₂NH)
(B)a substituted amine bearing NH₂
(C)bicyclohexyl (C₆H₁₁-C₆H₁₁)
(D)cyclohexane (C₆H₁₂)

View answer & solution →

73.

The correct statement is:

(A)Boron has a maximum covalency of four
(B)Beryllium has three valence orbitals
(C)Magnesium has a maximum covalency of four
(D)Aluminium has five valence orbitals

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74.

A protein undergoes reversible thermal denaturation Nleftharpoons D. At 60 ^°C the concentrations of N and D are equal at equilibrium, and the standard enthalpy change of denaturation is 666 kJ mol⁻¹. The standard entropy change Δ S^° (in kJ K⁻¹mol⁻¹) of the protein upon denaturation at 60 ^°C is closest to:

(A)2.0
(B)2000.0
(C)333.0
(D)11.1

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75.

Match the species in List-I with their geometry in List-II. List-I: A. PCl₅, B. BrF₅, C. BF₄-, D. [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻. List-II: I. Tetrahedral, II. Square planar, III. Trigonal bipyramidal, IV. Square pyramidal.

(A)A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(B)A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(C)A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(D)A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

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76.

Two statements — Statement-I: trans-But-2-ene on treatment with Br₂ in CCl₄ gives the shown product (a meso-2,3-dibromobutane). Statement-II: cis-But-2-ene on treatment with alkaline KMnO₄ gives the shown product (meso-butane-2,3-diol). Choose the most appropriate answer:

(A)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(B)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(C)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(D)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

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77.

Consider the reaction sequences and choose the correct option. Ph-C C-Me with Na/liq. NH₃→ L; with H₂, Pd/C (Lindlar's catalyst) → K. Then L, benzoyl peroxideN and K.

(A)K and L are geometrical isomers
(B)K and L are enantiomers
(C)M and N are geometrical isomers
(D)M and N are stereoisomers

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78.

The complex which has facial and meridional isomers is: (py = pyridine, en = H₂N-CH₂-CH₂-NH₂)

(A)[Cr(py)₃(Cl)₃]
(B)[Cr(H₂O)₆]³⁺
(C)[Co(NH₃)₄(H₂O)₂]³⁺
(D)[Ni(en)₂(H₂O)₂]²⁺

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79.

Identify the reactions which give aniline as the major product. (A) C₆H₅CN →[LiAlH₄]; (B) C₆H₅CONH₂ →[KOH, Br₂]; (C) C₆H₅NO₂ →[NaBH₄]; (D) C₆H₅NHCOCH₃ →[HCl, H₂O, Δ]. Choose the correct answer:

(A)A and B only
(B)B and D only
(C)A and C only
(D)C and D only

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80.

Match the vitamins in List-I with their sources in List-II. List-I: A. vitamin A, B. vitamin B₁₂, C. vitamin E, D. vitamin K. List-II: I. meat, II. sunflower oil, III. green leafy vegetables, IV. carrots.

(A)A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(B)A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(C)A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(D)A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

View answer & solution →

81.

The correct decreasing order of oxidation state of the underlined atom in each molecule is:

(A)₄O₁₀ > ₃ > H₂
(B)₂O₅ > ₂O₃ > H₂
(C)₂ > ₂O₃ > ₃
(D)₄O₆ > ₂O₇ > ₃

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82.

The compound that CANNOT be obtained from the aldol condensation reaction shown (2,2-dimethylcyclopentanone + PhCHO , Δ) is:

(A)a 2,2-dimethyl cyclopentanone bearing a second cyclopentenyl ring (self-condensation type product)
(B)the benzylidene (=CH–Ph) product on the α-carbon, one geometry
(C)a dimeric α,β-unsaturated cyclopentanone (self aldol)
(D)the benzylidene (=CH–Ph) product, other geometry

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83.

Among the following, the compound having conjugated double bonds is:

(A)hepta-1,3-diene
(B)hepta-1,4-diene
(C)hepta-1,5-diene
(D)hepta-1,6-diene

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84.

Two statements — Statement-I: Oxidation of p-nitrotoluene with acidic KMnO₄ gives an acid that is stronger than benzoic acid. Statement-II: Reduction of p-nitrotoluene with Sn/HCl followed by neutralization gives an amine that is more basic than aniline. Choose the most appropriate answer:

(A)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(B)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(C)Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(D)Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

View answer & solution →

85.

The green paramagnetic species formed by heating KMnO₄ at 513 K is:

(A)K₂MnO₄
(B)Mn₃O₄
(C)MnO
(D)KO₂

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86.

Consider the reaction: toluene (i) CrO₂Cl₂, CS₂(ii) H₃O+ P. Choose the correct option about P.

(A)On treating P with saturated NaHCO₃ solution, brisk effervescence is observed
(B)P can be prepared by treating benzene with anhydrous AlCl₃ and CH₃COCl
(C)On treatment with bromine water, P gives a white precipitate
(D)P is obtained by the hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride with Pd on BaSO₄

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87.

A 1:3 electrolyte in aqueous solution is:

(A)[CoCl₂(NH₃)₄]Cl
(B)[CoCl(NH₃)₅]Cl₂
(C)[Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃
(D)[Co(NH₃)₃(NO₂)₃]

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88.

Consider the schematic plots of the orbital wavefunction ψ_r against distance r from the nucleus (A: monotonically decreasing; B: one sign-change; C: two ripples crossing zero twice; D: oscillatory). The figure representing two radial nodes in the orbital is:

(A)A
(B)B
(C)C
(D)D

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89.

Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of polarity: A. CH₃CH₂OCH₂CH₃, B. CH₃CH₂OH, C. CH₃COCH₃, D. CH₃COOH.

(A)A < B < C < D
(B)C < A < D < B
(C)C < A < B < D
(D)A < C < B < D

View answer & solution →

90.

The highest occupied molecular orbital for Ne₂ is:

(A)π₂p
(B)σ₂p
(C)π*₂p
(D)σ*₂p

View answer & solution →

Biology · Q91–Q180

91.

The number of vertebrae in a human is ________.

(A)7
(B)12
(C)26
(D)206

92.

Symbiotic association between fungi and algae are called ________.

(A)lichens
(B)sponges
(C)mycorrhiza
(D)chrysophytes

93.

Cell theory was formulated by ______________.

(A)Schleiden and Schwann
(B)Robert Brown
(C)Singer and Nicolson
(D)Antonie Von Leeuwenhoek

94.

Which of the following are characteristics of prokaryotic cells? (a) Ribosomes are made of 50S and 30S subunits; (b) They can have plasmids; (c) They contain mesosome; (d) They have peroxisomes.

(A)(b) and (c) only
(B)(a) and (c) only
(C)(a), (c) and (d) only
(D)(a), (b) and (c) only

95.

Which of the following is not a part of the human central neural system?

(A)Arachnoid
(B)Dura mater
(C)Pia mater
(D)Pericardium

96.

Mitochondrial inner membrane encloses ___________.

(A)matrix
(B)cytosol
(C)mucus
(D)aqueous humor

97.

Match List-I (A. Cristae, B. Cisternae, C. Thylakoids, D. Phospholipid) with List-II (I. Flat membrane sacs in stroma of chloroplast, II. Infoldings in mitochondria, III. Cell membrane, IV. Disc-shaped sacs in the Golgi apparatus).

(A)A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(B)A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(C)A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(D)A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

98.

The plastid that stores xanthophyll is known as __________.

(A)chloroplast
(B)chromoplast
(C)aleuroplast
(D)amyloplast

99.

Which of the following statements related to the pituitary gland are correct? (a) It is divided anatomically into adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis; (b) It secretes follicle stimulating hormone; (c) It secretes melanocyte stimulating hormone; (d) It does not secrete prolactin.

(A)(a) and (b) only
(B)(a), (b) and (c) only
(C)(c) and (d) only
(D)(b) and (c) only

100.

The photorespiration reaction catalysed by RuBisCO is: RuBP + O₂ → 3-Phosphoglycerate + X. Identify X.

(A)Phosphoenolpyruvate
(B)2-Phosphoglycolate
(C)Oxaloacetate
(D)Malate

101.

Mad cow disease is caused by _______.

(A)prions
(B)viroids
(C)Aspergillus sp.
(D)Mycoplasma sp.

102.

Which pigment has an absorption peak at 700 nm in the photosynthetic reaction centre PS I (P700)?

(A)Chlorophyll b
(B)Chlorophyll a
(C)Xanthophylls
(D)Carotenoids

103.

In water, frogs respire using _____________.

(A)skin
(B)buccal cavity
(C)lungs
(D)trachea

104.

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of arrangement of bones in the lower limb of humans?

(A)Femur-tibia-patella-tarsal
(B)Patella-femur-tibia-tarsal
(C)Femur-patella-tibia-tarsal
(D)Femur-tarsal-patella-tibia

105.

Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of ________.

(A)leaves
(B)flowers
(C)fruits
(D)sepals

106.

Match List-I (A. Starch, B. Antibody, C. Concanavalin A, D. Glut-4) with List-II (I. Fights infection, II. Energy storage, III. Glucose transport, IV. Lectin).

(A)A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(B)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(C)A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(D)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

107.

Two statements — Statement I: When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical halves, it is called radial symmetry. Statement II: In phylum Echinodermata, both adults and larvae are radially symmetrical. Choose the most appropriate answer:

(A)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B)Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C)Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(D)Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

108.

Endomembrane system includes _______.

(A)endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuole
(B)endoplasmic reticulum, chloroplast, peroxisomes and vacuole
(C)mitochondria, chloroplast, peroxisomes and vacuole
(D)Golgi complex, chloroplast, peroxisomes and vacuole

109.

How many molecules of pyruvic acid are produced at the end of glycolysis from 206 molecules of glucose?

(A)206
(B)309
(C)103
(D)412

110.

Which of the following plant growth regulators is used as a herbicide?

(A)2,4-D
(B)Kinetin
(C)Abscisic acid
(D)Gibberellin

111.

Two statements — Statement I: In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes remain within the sporangia. Statement II: In gymnosperms, seeds are not covered. Choose the most appropriate answer:

(A)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B)Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C)Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(D)Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

112.

Match List-I (A. Spherical, B. Rod, C. Comma, D. Spirillum) with List-II (I. Vibrio, II. Cocci, III. Spirilla, IV. Bacilli).

(A)A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(B)A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(C)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(D)A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

113.

Which of the following are characteristic features of the Solanaceae family? (a) Flowers are bisexual and actinomorphic; (b) Calyx has five sepals and is united; (c) Androecium has five stamens and is epipetalous; (d) Ovary is inferior.

(A)(a), (b) and (c) only
(B)(d) only
(C)(a) and (b) only
(D)(b), (c) and (d) only

114.

Select the correct sequence of experiments that led to a gradual understanding of photosynthesis in green plants.

(A)Absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b → production of glucose → release of oxygen → role of air
(B)Role of air → release of oxygen → production of glucose → absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and b
(C)Release of oxygen → production of glucose → absorption spectra → role of air
(D)Production of glucose → role of air → release of oxygen → absorption spectra

115.

The number of action potentials generated by the sino-atrial node (SAN) in a healthy human is _______ per minute.

(A)28 - 30
(B)70 - 75
(C)100 - 110
(D)120 - 140

116.

How many turns of the Calvin cycle are required for the formation of three molecules of glucose?

(A)6
(B)3
(C)1
(D)18

117.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(A)Blood coagulates in response to an injury
(B)Blood clot consists of fibrins
(C)Fibrin is produced from fibrinogen
(D)Fibrinogen is produced from fibrin

118.

Match List-I (A. Family, B. Genus, C. Class, D. Phylum, E. Order) with List-II (I. Sapindales, II. Dicotyledonae, III. Anacardiaceae, IV. Angiospermae, V. Mangifera).

(A)A-I, B-V, C-II, D-IV, E-III
(B)A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV, E-V
(C)A-II, B-III, C-V, D-I, E-IV
(D)A-III, B-V, C-II, D-IV, E-I

119.

Arrange the following taxonomic categories in ascending order: (a) Genus, (b) Class, (c) Order, (d) Phylum, (e) Family, (f) Kingdom, (g) Species.

(A)(g), (a), (e), (c), (b), (d), (f)
(B)(a), (c), (d), (g), (f), (b), (e)
(C)(g), (c), (d), (b), (e), (a), (f)
(D)(f), (c), (b), (g), (d), (e), (a)

120.

Match List-I (A. Marginal placentation, B. Axile placentation, C. Parietal placentation, D. Free central placentation) with List-II (I. Argemone, II. Tomato, III. Primrose, IV. Pea).

(A)A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(B)A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(C)A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(D)A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

121.

Sphenopsida class belongs to _____________.

(A)bryophytes
(B)angiosperms
(C)gymnosperms
(D)pteridophytes

122.

Which of the following statements regarding photorespiration are correct? (a) Does not occur in C3 plants; (b) CO₂ is consumed and O₂ is generated; (c) Phosphoglycolate is formed; (d) No synthesis of ATP and NADPH.

(A)(a) and (d) only
(B)(c) and (d) only
(C)(b) and (d) only
(D)(a) and (b) only

123.

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum ___________.

(A)has ribosomes attached to its surface
(B)is the major site for the synthesis of lipids
(C)is actively involved in protein synthesis
(D)is a site for the synthesis of carbohydrates

124.

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(A)α-cells of pancreas secrete glucagon
(B)α-cells of pancreas secrete insulin
(C)Glucagon stimulates glycogenolysis
(D)β-cells of pancreas secrete insulin

125.

Genus represents __________.

(A)an individual plant or animal
(B)a population of plants and animals
(C)a group of closely related species
(D)a group of closely related families

126.

Which of the following is not a prokaryote?

(A)Bacteria
(B)Blue green algae
(C)Mycoplasma
(D)Fungi

127.

Which of the following plant growth regulators promotes internode elongation prior to flowering in cabbage?

(A)Abscisic acid
(B)Gibberellin
(C)Indole butyric acid
(D)Ethephon

128.

The correct sequence of adult cell cycle phases is ________.

(A)G1-G2-S-M
(B)G1-M-G2-S
(C)G1-S-G2-M
(D)S-M-G2-G1

129.

Match List-I (A. Fusion of protoplasms between gametes, B. Fusion of two nuclei, C. Generation of haploid spores) with List-II (I. Meiosis, II. Plasmogamy, III. Karyogamy).

(A)A-II, B-III, C-I
(B)A-II, B-I, C-III
(C)A-III, B-II, C-I
(D)A-I, B-III, C-II

130.

Two statements — Statement I: The class name Reptilia refers to creeping or crawling mode of locomotion. Statement II: All organisms belonging to Reptilia have a three-chambered heart. Choose the most appropriate answer:

(A)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B)Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C)Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(D)Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

131.

Two statements — Statement I: Chromosomes are fully condensed at the end of prophase I. Statement II: Meiosis I resembles mitosis. Choose the most appropriate answer:

(A)Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B)Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C)Statement I is correct, but Statement II is false
(D)Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is true

132.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of chordates?

(A)Presence of notochord
(B)Central nervous system is dorsal
(C)Absence of gills
(D)Presence of post-anal part (tail)

133.

Length of the stem at time 0 is 20 cm. The arithmetic growth rate is 30 cm per day. What is the length of the stem at the end of the 7th day?

(A)50 cm
(B)170 cm
(C)230 cm
(D)460 cm

134.

Arrange the following elements in descending order of their contribution to the percentage weight of the human body: (a) Oxygen, (b) Carbon, (c) Hydrogen, (d) Nitrogen.

(A)(a), (b), (c), (d)
(B)(c), (a), (b), (d)
(C)(b), (c), (d), (a)
(D)(b), (a), (c), (d)

135.

In frogs, the number of pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain are ______.

(A)6
(B)9
(C)10
(D)12

136.

Which of the following is used as a clot buster?

(A)Streptokinase
(B)Penicillin
(C)Cyclosporin A
(D)Statins

137.

The inactive form of Bt toxin is converted to the active form in the insect gut _______.

(A)due to alkaline pH
(B)due to acidic pH
(C)by proteases
(D)by nucleases

138.

Two statements — Statement I: Down's syndrome is caused by the absence of one of the X-chromosomes. Statement II: Turner's syndrome is caused by the presence of an additional copy of the chromosomes. Choose the correct answer:

(A)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B)Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C)Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(D)Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

139.

Which of the following diseases is not sexually transmitted?

(A)Syphilis
(B)Tuberculosis
(C)Gonorrhoea
(D)Genital warts

140.

Sperm motility is due to ___________.

(A)flagellar movement
(B)ciliary movement
(C)amoeboid movement
(D)muscular movement

141.

Natural selection can lead to _________. (a) stabilisation; (b) genetic drift; (c) directional change; (d) disruption.

(A)(a) only
(B)(a), (c) and (d) only
(C)(a), (b), (c) and (d)
(D)(a) and (c) only

142.

The method of directly injecting a sperm into the ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called:

(A)Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
(B)Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
(C)Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
(D)Embryo transfer (ET)

143.

Which of the following structures is not a part of the male reproductive system?

(A)Rete testis
(B)Epididymis
(C)Vasa efferentia
(D)Infundibulum

144.

Arrange the following in descending order of the number of species in the Amazonian rain forest: (a) Plants, (b) Birds, (c) Fishes, (d) Invertebrates, (e) Mammals.

(A)(c) > (b) > (d) > (e) > (a)
(B)(d) > (a) > (c) > (b) > (e)
(C)(e) > (b) > (a) > (c) > (d)
(D)(b) > (a) > (d) > (c) > (e)

145.

Two statements — Statement I: Ovulation is caused by LH surge leading to rupture of Graafian follicles. Statement II: The Graafian follicle remaining after ovulation transforms into the corpus luteum and secretes a large amount of estrogen. Choose the most appropriate answer:

(A)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B)Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C)Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(D)Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

146.

Which of the following are primary consumers in a food chain?

(A)Parasites
(B)Predators
(C)Herbivores
(D)Carnivores

147.

A population of diploid organisms is at Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium. If the frequency of allele A is 0.1, the frequency of AA is ________.

(A)0.01
(B)0.02
(C)0.10
(D)0.99

148.

Match List-I (A. Excess growth hormone, B. Luteinizing hormone, C. Vasopressin, D. Oxytocin) with List-II (I. Reabsorption of water and electrolytes in kidney, II. Contraction of uterus during child birth, III. Acromegaly, IV. Ovulation).

(A)A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(B)A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(C)A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(D)A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

149.

The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by _________.

(A)bicuspid valve
(B)tricuspid valve
(C)semilunar valve
(D)sino-atrial node

150.

Sponges exchange O₂ with CO₂ by __________.

(A)simple diffusion over their entire body surfaces
(B)moist cuticle
(C)tracheal tubes
(D)gills

151.

How many theca are present in each lobe of a typical bilobed angiosperm anther?

(A)2
(B)6
(C)8
(D)12

152.

Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the central nervous system by the release of _____.

(A)acetyl choline
(B)acetyl coenzyme A
(C)cyclic guanine monophosphate
(D)cyclic adenine monophosphate

153.

Which of the following statements about the lac-operon is correct?

(A)Gene i is constitutively expressed
(B)Lactose activates the repressor to bind to the operator
(C)Genes i, z, y and a share a single common promoter
(D)Galactose can act as an inducer of the lac operon

154.

Which of the following in the female gametophyte of an angiosperm helps in guiding the pollen tube for fertilizing the eggs?

(A)Antipodals
(B)Synergids
(C)Central cells
(D)Polar nucleus

155.

Which of the following plants produces non-albuminous seeds?

(A)Wheat
(B)Maize
(C)Barley
(D)Pea

156.

If the diploid chromosome number of a typical angiosperm is 36, what would be the chromosome number in its endosperm?

(A)18
(B)36
(C)54
(D)72

157.

Which of the following statements about the reabsorption process in Henle's loop are correct? (a) The descending limb is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes; (b) Urine gets concentrated in Henle's loop; (c) Reabsorption of Na⁺ and water takes place in Henle's loop; (d) Active or passive transport of electrolytes occurs in the ascending limb.

(A)(a) and (b) only
(B)(b), (c) and (d) only
(C)(a), (b) and (c) only
(D)(a), (b) and (d) only

158.

Which of the following is the correct order of arrangement of the vertebral column from head to toe?

(A)Cervical, thoracic, sacrum, lumbar
(B)Sacrum, lumbar, thoracic, cervical
(C)Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacrum
(D)Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum

159.

Which of the following is NOT evidence for evolution?

(A)Convergent evolution of traits like wings of birds and butterflies
(B)Paleontological evidence from fossil records
(C)Embryological support for evolution as proposed by Ernst Haeckel
(D)Divergent evolution of anatomical structures such as forelimbs

160.

Two statements — Statement I: Modern Homo sapiens arose in Australia and moved across continents. Statement II: Homo sapiens arose around 75,000 to 10,000 years ago. Choose the most appropriate answer:

(A)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B)Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C)Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(D)Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

161.

Consider a population of 10 million cells with a per-capita birth rate of 0.002 (per unit time) and a per-capita death rate of 0.002 (per unit time). The expected number of cells after 10 generations is ______.

(A)1 million
(B)5 million
(C)10 million
(D)100 million

162.

During PCR, primers bind to the DNA strands in the ______ step.

(A)denaturation
(B)extension
(C)annealing
(D)ligation

163.

Assertion A: The logistic growth model of populations is considered more realistic than the exponential growth model. Reason R: Resources are finite. Choose the most appropriate answer:

(A)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(B)Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C)A is correct but R is not correct
(D)A is not correct but R is correct

164.

Adaptive radiation in placental mammals and Australian marsupials, leading to similarity between distant species, is an example of ________.

(A)divergent evolution
(B)convergent evolution
(C)founder effect
(D)genetic drift

165.

Which of the following are secondary lymphoid organs? (a) Bone marrow, (b) Tonsils, (c) Spleen, (d) Thymus.

(A)(a) and (b) only
(B)(b) and (c) only
(C)(a) and (d) only
(D)(c) and (d) only

166.

Which of the following hormones is not secreted by the human placenta?

(A)hCG
(B)Estrogen
(C)Progesterone
(D)LH

167.

Which of the following enzymes synthesizes precursor mRNA?

(A)RNA polymerase I
(B)RNA polymerase II
(C)RNA polymerase III
(D)DNA polymerase

168.

Two statements — Statement I: Plasmids are autonomously replicating DNA. Statement II: Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA. Choose the most appropriate answer:

(A)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B)Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C)Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(D)Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

169.

For a person with blood group 'O', which of the following is not a possible combination of parents' blood-group genotypes?

(A)Father: I^A i and Mother: I^B i
(B)Father: I^A i and Mother: I^A i
(C)Father: I^B i and Mother: I^B i
(D)Father: I^A I^B and Mother: I^A i

170.

Assertion A: Forelimbs of humans and bats are homologous. Reason R: Forelimbs of humans and bats have similar anatomical structure. Choose the most appropriate answer:

(A)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(B)Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C)A is true but R is false
(D)A is false but R is true

171.

Colostrum, secreted by the mother during the initial days of lactation, is abundant in ________.

(A)IgG
(B)IgM
(C)IgA
(D)IgD

172.

Assertion A: The Abingdon tortoise in the Galapagos islands became extinct within a decade after goats were introduced. Reason R: Goats were more efficient at browsing than the Abingdon tortoise. Choose the most appropriate answer:

(A)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(B)Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C)A is correct but R is not correct
(D)A is not correct but R is correct

173.

The covering of the ovum at ovulation is _________.

(A)endometrium
(B)zona radiata
(C)zona pellucida
(D)chorion

174.

Match List-I (A. Both species are harmed, B. One species is harmed and the other is benefited, C. Both species are benefited, D. One is benefited while the other has no effect) with List-II (I. Predation, II. Mutualism, III. Competition, IV. Commensalism).

(A)A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(B)A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(C)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(D)A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

175.

Assertion A: In an experiment, Mendel observed that the F1 progeny plants are all tall and none are dwarf. Reason R: Stem height is a contrasting trait, with tall being dominant and dwarf being recessive. Choose the most appropriate answer:

(A)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(B)Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C)A is correct but R is not correct
(D)A is not correct but R is correct

176.

Assertion A: In recombinant DNA technology, lysozyme is used for disrupting bacterial cells while cellulase is used for plant cells. Reason R: Isolation of genetic material needs disruption of cells. Choose the most appropriate answer:

(A)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(B)Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C)A is correct but R is not correct
(D)A is not correct but R is correct

177.

Which of the following is used as an effective sedative and painkiller for treating post-surgery patients?

(A)Interferon
(B)Antibiotics
(C)Morphine
(D)Anti-retroviral drugs

178.

Which of the following statements are correct? (a) Energy flow from producers to consumers is unidirectional; (b) Energy pyramid can never be inverted; (c) Transfer of energy follows the 1% law.

(A)(a), (b) and (c)
(B)(a) and (b) only
(C)(a) and (c) only
(D)(b) and (c) only

179.

Which of the following statements is correct about Plasmodium?

(A)Reproduces sexually in liver cells
(B)Reproduces sexually in RBCs
(C)Gametocytes develop in the mosquito gut
(D)Fertilization takes place in the mosquito gut

180.

Match List-I (A. Transformation, B. Cloning site, C. Selection, D. Ori) with List-II (I. Restriction enzyme, II. Transfer DNA to host bacteria, III. Replication, IV. Antibiotic).

(A)A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(B)A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(C)A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(D)A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

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